Last week’s question was on the claim by the Orientalists that there is a contradiction in the Qur’aan regarding the aayat that it was revealed in the Arabic language and yet contains ‘foreign’ words.
The answer is:
“Linguistically the concept of foreign words in languages is described as ‘borrowing’. The idea of borrowing words is a universal observation that applies to all languages. English is a good example of this; take the word ‘Philosophy’. It comes from the Greek words ‘Philo’ which means love of and ‘Sophia’ which means wisdom. The concept of ‘foreign’ or ‘borrowed’ words comes from the fact that different races, cultures and peoples come in contact with one another.
What was specific about the Arabs at the time of revelation was that they came into contact with other cultures due to trade and had subsequently borrowed certain words. These foreign words in the Qur’aan had already been naturalised into the Arabic language before the revelation of the Qur’aan. These words were already in use in the Arabic language. According to Imam Shafi’i these words had been fully integrated into Arabic and were already a part of the language.” [1]
“It should be noted that although the Qur’an has words of foreign origin in it, this does not detract from the purity of the language at all:
- Firstly, Arabic, Ethiopic, Syriac and Aramaic are cognate languages and have a good number of words in common because of their common roots.
- · Second, in the course of the Arabs’ long contact with the outside world, especially in the course of their trade and commerce, a number of words of non-Arabic origin entered the language through the Arabs’ long contact with the outside world, and so these words were naturalized, thus being considered part and parcel of the Arabic language (as with other languages).
The occurrence of such words and expressions in the Qur’an is thus quite natural because it was sent down in the language of its immediate audience, the Arabs. Thus, these “foreign” words had already been integrated into the Arabic language and were accepted as part of pure literary Arabic.” [2]
This week’s question:
Read the following verses and pay attention to the highlighted words:
وَقَالَ نِسْوَةٌ فِي الْمَدِينَةِ امْرَأَةُ الْعَزِيزِ تُرَاوِدُ فَتَاهَا عَن نَّفْسِهِ قَدْ شَغَفَهَا حُبًّا إِنَّا لَنَرَاهَا فِي ضَلاَلٍ مُّبِينٍ
And women in the city said: “The wife of Al-’Azîz is seeking to seduce her (slave) young man, indeed she loves him violently; verily we see her in plain error.” (Yoosuf 12:30)
تِلْكَ الرُّسُلُ فَضَّلْنَا بَعْضَهُمْ عَلَى بَعْضٍ
Those Messengers! We preferred some to others; to some of them Allaah spoke (directly); others He raised to degrees (of honour); and to ‘Iesa (Jesus), the son of Maryam (Mary), We gave clear proofs and evidences, and supported him with Rûh-ul-Qudus [Jibrael (Gabriel)]. If Allaah had willed, succeeding generations would not have fought against each other, after clear Verses of Allaah had come to them, but they differed – some of them believed and others disbelieved. If Allaah had willed, they would not have fought against one another, but Allaah does what He likes. (Al-Baqarah 2:253)
قَالَتِ الْأَعْرَابُ آمَنَّا قُل لَّمْ تُؤْمِنُوا وَلَكِن قُولُوا أَسْلَمْنَا
The bedouins say: “We believe.” Say: “You believe not but you only say, ‘We have surrendered (in Islaam),’ for Faith has not yet entered your hearts. But if you obey Allaah and His Messenger (SAW), He will not decrease anything in reward for your deeds. Verily, Allaah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful.” (Al-Hujuraat 49:14)
If we look at the first aayah, the word qaala is highlighted and this means he said but yet Allaah is using a verb directed at a male subject for females where as it should be qaalat for females. In the second aayah, the word tilka means those and in the Arabic language there is a difference between pointing to female and male subjects. Tilka is used for females and its masculine equivalent is dhaalika, yet Allaah uses the feminine form to refer to the Messengers, who are all male. In the final aayah, Allaah uses the feminine verb which should have been in the first verse to refer to Bedouin men.
This is the Qur’aan and obviously there are no mistakes in it. It is permissible to interchange masculine forms for female subjects and vice-versa and this is from a rhetorical (balaaghah) perspective. But can you figure out the connection between interchanging the masculine and feminine forms and the reason Allaah did so in these verses?